I know this particular subject have been discussed countless time.
General consensus is that since I'm used to hear loudness eq curve so I will feel that flat sounds thin. I kinda accept this explanation.
However recently I have compared YPAO result of my A3050 with sennheiser HD 800 (using it's own amp) which supposedly reference for flat sound and when I play exactly same music the bass on my Yamaha is seriously lacking.
It might be my speaker or my room issue however isn't that is the purpose of the auto calibration? And when I increase the bass manually I can get good bass so I really think it is not my speakers, receiver or room. Of course I can simply increase the bass setting and be done with it but my curiousity is too strong.
I bought calibrated UMIK-1 and checked using REW and I saw quite good flat graph (within 3 db) and the lowest dip in bass region is -2 something dB at around 40Hz (which I believe not so many musical instruments reacing this low).
Anyone have idea what caused the difference in bass strength? Is it because the sennheiser is closed to my ear so no sound leakage? Or because it is closer to my ear so I preceive louder sound? Stayed in apartment I had no chance to try reference level yet but I did tried quite loud and the bass is still not up to expectation.
My setup is 2 channels DIY and definitely can go low around 32 Hz. No reverse polarity or blown woofer.
Thank you!
General consensus is that since I'm used to hear loudness eq curve so I will feel that flat sounds thin. I kinda accept this explanation.
However recently I have compared YPAO result of my A3050 with sennheiser HD 800 (using it's own amp) which supposedly reference for flat sound and when I play exactly same music the bass on my Yamaha is seriously lacking.
It might be my speaker or my room issue however isn't that is the purpose of the auto calibration? And when I increase the bass manually I can get good bass so I really think it is not my speakers, receiver or room. Of course I can simply increase the bass setting and be done with it but my curiousity is too strong.
I bought calibrated UMIK-1 and checked using REW and I saw quite good flat graph (within 3 db) and the lowest dip in bass region is -2 something dB at around 40Hz (which I believe not so many musical instruments reacing this low).
Anyone have idea what caused the difference in bass strength? Is it because the sennheiser is closed to my ear so no sound leakage? Or because it is closer to my ear so I preceive louder sound? Stayed in apartment I had no chance to try reference level yet but I did tried quite loud and the bass is still not up to expectation.
My setup is 2 channels DIY and definitely can go low around 32 Hz. No reverse polarity or blown woofer.
Thank you!